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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Reliable Test Notes - Valid ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Online

You will be able to apply for high-paying jobs in top companies worldwide after passing the Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management test. The Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam provides many benefits such as higher pay, promotions, resume enhancement, and skill development.

Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

Key concepts: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and covers the fundamental purpose of Deployment Management. It highlights why the structured management of service deployment is crucial for delivering new or modified services into the live environment efficiently while minimizing disruption and ensuring continuity in business operations.

Topic 2

The ITIL Capability model: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and introduces how capability criteria contribute to developing and maturing Deployment Management practices. It focuses on aligning organizational capabilities with ITIL best practices to maintain consistency, quality, and effectiveness in service transitions.

Topic 3

Practice processes: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and delves into the key processes that shape Deployment Management. It outlines how these processes and activities can be aligned with the organization’s value stream to ensure that deployments are well-planned, coordinated, and delivered without disrupting existing services.

Topic 4

Information and technology: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and explores how technology and information systems support deployment activities. It covers how tools and digital platforms can enhance the planning, tracking, and execution of deployment efforts, ultimately contributing to more reliable and streamlined service rollouts.

>> Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Reliable Test Notes <<

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q16-Q21):

NEW QUESTION # 16
[Integrate Deployment Management with Other Practices]
An organization's end users have complained that major software updates happen during work hours, with insufficient notice, and sometimes disrupt users' work for an unacceptably long time. The deployment manager already has close alignment with the release manager and release processes, and has implemented CI/CD. What is the BEST action for the organization to take to ensure new software features are relevant to the end-users?

A. Embed validation and testing within the deployment models
B. Integrate deployment management and configuration management activities to improve version control
C. Use infrastructure as code to support the software deployment
D. Align with the change enablement manager to improve the change planning procedures

Answer: D

Explanation:
The issue involves poor timing, lack of notice, and disruptions from deployments, which points to deficiencies in change planning and communication. ITIL 4 emphasizes aligning deployment with change enablement to ensure changes are scheduled and communicated effectively, addressing user concerns. Option C, aligning with the change enablement manager to improve change planning procedures, directly tackles these issues by ensuring deployments are timed appropriately, users are informed, and disruptions are minimized, while also ensuring feature relevance through better planning.
Option A (Use infrastructure as code to support the software deployment): Incorrect, as IaC improves environment consistency but does not address scheduling, notice, or user relevance issues.
Option B (Embed validation and testing within the deployment models): Incorrect, as while testing improves quality, it does not resolve timing or communication problems affecting users.
Option C (Align with the change enablement manager to improve the change planning procedures): Correct, as change enablement ensures deployments are planned with user needs in mind, including timing, communication, and relevance of features.
Option D (Integrate deployment management and configuration management activities to improve version control): Incorrect, as version control enhances deployment accuracy but does not address user complaints about timing or disruption.

NEW QUESTION # 17
[Use Tools and Techniques for Deployment]
Which automation tools should be used to transport and install configuration items into a test environment?

A. Deployment tools
B. Work planning and prioritization tools
C. Environment configuration and management tools
D. Service configuration management tools

Answer: A

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, deployment tools are specifically designed to automate the transportation and installation of configuration items (CIs) into various environments, including test environments. These tools ensure consistency, repeatability, and efficiency in deployment processes, which are critical for managing CIs during testing phases.
Option A (Deployment tools): Correct, as deployment tools (e.g., Jenkins, Ansible, or Terraform for certain use cases) are tailored for automating the movement and installation of CIs, ensuring they are correctly placed in test environments with minimal manual intervention.
Option B (Environment configuration and management tools): While these tools (e.g., Puppet, Chef) manage environment settings, their primary focus is on configuring and maintaining environments, not transporting or installing CIs, making them less relevant here.
Option C (Work planning and prioritization tools): Tools like Jira or Trello focus on task management and prioritization, not on automating CI deployment, so this option is incorrect.
Option D (Service configuration management tools): These tools manage relationships and data about CIs in a configuration management database (CMDB), not the physical transport or installation of CIs, ruling out this option.

NEW QUESTION # 18
[Apply Deployment Management Processes]
What key output of the 'deployment model development and improvement' process can be used to trigger implementation of a newly updated deployment model?

A. Updated knowledge management articles
B. Lessons learned
C. Deployment review reports
D. Change request

Answer: D

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, the deployment model development and improvement process involves creating or refining models to enhance deployment effectiveness. Implementing a newly updated deployment model typically requires formal authorization and coordination, which is achieved through a change request (Option B). A change request initiates the process to assess, approve, and execute the model update in a controlled manner, ensuring alignment with organizational governance and other practices like change enablement.
Option A (Lessons learned): Incorrect, as lessons learned are an output for improving future processes, not a trigger for implementing a new model.
Option B (Change request): Correct, as a change request is the formal mechanism to propose and implement a new or updated deployment model, per ITIL 4's integration with change enablement.
Option C (Updated knowledge management articles): Incorrect, as knowledge articles support documentation and training but do not trigger implementation.
Option D (Deployment review reports): Incorrect, as review reports provide insights or feedback, not the authorization needed to implement a model.

NEW QUESTION # 19
[Measure and Improve Deployment Management]
Which capability criterion should be used to assess if the organization is succeeding in increasing the capability level of its deployment management practice by maintaining an effective deployment approach?

A. Deployments include required technologies and information flows
B. Deployment rules are integrated with policies and rules for changes and releases
C. Deployments are supported by relevant competences
D. New and changed services and service components are successfully deployed

Answer: D

Explanation:
ITIL 4 defines capability levels based on outcomes and value delivery, with higher levels indicating reliable and effective practices. To assess whether an organization is increasing its deployment management capability by maintaining an effective approach, the key criterion is whether new and changed services and service components are successfully deployed (Option A). This outcome-focused measure directly indicates the practice's reliability and alignment with organizational goals.
Option A (New and changed services and service components are successfully deployed): Correct, as successful deployments are the primary indicator of an effective deployment management practice, reflecting capability maturity in ITIL 4.
Option B (Deployments are supported by relevant competences): Incorrect, as while competences are important, they are a supporting factor, not the primary criterion for assessing capability outcomes.
Option C (Deployments include required technologies and information flows): Incorrect, as having the right technologies is a prerequisite, not a direct measure of deployment success or capability.
Option D (Deployment rules are integrated with policies and rules for changes and releases): Incorrect, as integration with other practices supports deployment but is not the key indicator of capability compared to actual deployment success.

NEW QUESTION # 20
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which of the following BEST describes the scope of deployment management practice?

A. The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment
B. The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments
C. The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment
D. The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment

Answer: B

Explanation:
ITIL 4's deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.
Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments): Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4's definition of deployment management.
Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment): Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.
Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment): Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.
Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment): Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.

NEW QUESTION # 21
......

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